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Time Value of Money Concepts: Uniform Series, Cap Value, and Payback Period

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## Time Value of Money Concepts: Uniform Series, Cap Value, and Payback Period

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**Time Value of Money Concepts:Uniform Series, Cap Value, and**Payback Period Module 02.3: TVM AE, etc. Revised: January 2, 2020**Purpose:**• Expand TVM (time value of money) concepts into the development of other cashflow evaluation techniques besides NPV. Specifically: • Periodic series analysis • Capitalized Value (often called pro-forma or cap-value), • Payback period, and**Learning Objectives**• Students should be able to determine the NPV of a Bond. • Students should be able to determine the Cap Value of a net revenue stream for a revenue generating asset. • Students should be able to determine the Payback Period for a revenue generating asset.**A Review of Some Commonly Used Terms**• P, PV, and NPV – all mean Present Value or the value of the money Now. • Now is time = zero. • A “Cash Stream” a series of expenses and incomes over time. You “discount” a cashflow over time. • F and FV stand for future value. • A, AE, PMT all stand for the periodic amount in a uniform series or “annual equivalent” or equal installment payment, etc. • Little “i” means interest rate; Big “I” stands for Interest amount. Watch for typos because PPT whimsically changes one to the other.**Three Kinds of Possible Problems**• Case 1: Time Finite, %>0 – Most real problems fall in this domain • Case 2: Time Infinite, %>0 – Useful when you need a quick SWAG at NPV. • Case 3: Time Finite, %=0 – Very useful where interest can be neglected for all practical purposes.**Case 1: Time Finite, %>0**• Time is Finite and Interest Rate, i, is greater than zero. (The usual case.) • You use this approach when a precise number is required. • P = F/(1+i)n (We did this in Lecture 02.2) • P = A*((1+i)n-1)/i*(1+i)n**Derivation of F=P(1+i)n**QED, F=P(1+i)n OR P=F(1+i)-n**Derivation of: F=A*(F/A,i,n)**(1) F=A(1+i)n-1+…A(1+i)2+ A(1+i)1+A Multiply by (1+i) (2) F+Fi = A(1+i)n+A(1+i)n-1…A(1+i)2+A(1+i)1 Subtracting (1) from (2), you get. Fi=A(1+i)n-A F=A[((1+i)n-1)/i], and P=A[((1+i)n-1)/i(1+i)n]**F**P A 0 5 Single Value ProblemDo in Class until everyone “gets it.” The relationships between equivalent amounts of money ($5,000 now) at different points in time are shown below. • P= $5,000, i=12% • F= $5,000(1.12)5 = $8,811.71 • A= $8,811.71*.12/(1.125-1) = $1,387.05 • P= $1,387.05*(1.125-1)/(.12*1.125) = $5,000**Finding the Present Value using the factor method.**P= F*(1 +i)^-n**Now What’s the Future Value using the factor method?**• F = P(1+%)^n • F = $1,631*(1.12)^8 = $4,038**Now What IS the Annual Equivalent?**• A = $1,632*[.12*1.128 /(1.128 -1)] = $328.52 • A = $4,038*[.12/(1.128-1)] = $328.21**Bond Example**• This is usually called “discounted cash flow” and is easier than it looks, • The only relationship you really need to know is: P=F(1+i)-n • But P=A[((1+i)n-1)/i(1+i)n] helps • For example, What is the PV of a 10-year, $10,000 bond that pays 10%, if current interest is 5%?**Bond Nomenclature**• The “face values” establish the cash stream to be evaluated at the current interest rate. • A 10-year, $10,000 bond, paying 10% generates 10 equal payments of $1,000. The payments are at the end of the years. • At the end of 10 years the $10,000 is also returned. • The question is: What is the present value of that cash stream at 5% interest? At 15%? • Note: the two different interest rates.**Bond Example Using P given A and P given F**• Break the problem into two parts: the series and the single payment at the end. Thus: • P1=$1,000[(1.0510-1)/.05*(1.05)10 = $7,722 • P2=$10,000*(1.05)-10 = $6,139 • At 5%, P = P1 + P2 =$13,861 • At 10%, P =$6,145 +$3,855 = $10,000 • At 15%, P =$5,020 +$2,472= $7,491**RAT # 02.3.2 – Bond Example**As Individuals work the following (5-minutes): • Given a $5,000 bond paying 5% annually, compounded quarterly, over 5 years. How much should you pay for it, if you want an MARR of 10%? • As Pairs, take 3-minutes to: • Discuss your solutions amongst yourselves. • Lets take several minutes to discuss any issues.**Case 2: Time Infinite, %>0**• Time is assumed to be Infinite and Interest Rate, i, is grater than zero. (Cap Rate approach). • This is good for a quick SWAG at finding the “value” of an asset from the cash stream that it generates. • P =A/i, etc. • Or A =P*i**Derivation of P=A/i**• There are two approaches • Excel – strong-arm approach • Math – Elegant • P=A[((1+i)n-1)/i(1+i)n] • Gets large without limit, everything cancels except for A/i. • P=A/i or A=Pi or i=A/P**Cap Value Approach forEvaluating Rental Property**• CV = Annual Rent / Interest RateCV = $6,000 / i=.085 = $70,000CV = $6,000 / i=10% = $60,000 • Use when i is your MARR (minimum attractive rate of return.) • Notice that when MARR increases the price you should pay goes down.**Payback Period forEvaluating Rental Property**• CV = 120*Monthly Rent (Assumes a payback in 10 years.)CV = 120 * $500 = $60,000 • Use when i is small, easy to borrow money • MARR is 10%.**RAT #02.3.3 – Buy or Not to Buy: That is the Question?**• As individuals, in 2-minutes work the following: • Based upon the preceding two concepts, what should you pay for an apartment house, if rents are $20,000/mo, expenses exclusive of loan repayment are $ 4,000/mo, your MARR is 15%? • Then, as pairs, discuss your solutions and raise any issues.**Case 3: Time Finite, %=0**• Time is finite and short and Interest Rate, i, is equal to, or close to, zero. • Used for a quick swag at complex problems. • A = NPV/n • or NPV = A*n**Case #3 Example:Economic Life**• Assume that a bulldozer costs $400k • Assume that its O&M costs are $30k for the first year and increase $30k per year • Then the cash stream looks like this:**Lecture Assessment**• Take 1 minute and Write down the one topic that is “muddiest” (least clear) for you.